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Permanent vs. temporary increases in government spending, a Keynesian approach

Let's say government can spend $100 billion today or spend the present expected value of $100 billion, stretched out over time so it is a commitment in perpetuity.  Both spending programs are financed by bonds.  So that's the same net present value of spending and the same method of finance.

The Keynesian boost to aggregate demand arises because people consider the resulting bonds to be "net wealth" even when they are not, in the sense outlined by Robert Barro (1974).  People are tricked by the government's fiscal policy, but of course the extent, timing, and nature of the trickery is hard to predict.

Is it easier to trick people "a lot all at once" or "a little bit by bit over time"?  It depends.  If you try to trick them slowly over time, temporal learning and adaptive expectations may work against the policymaker.  But if you try to trick people a lot all at once, the trick may rise over their threshold of attention, perhaps because of media coverage.  We don't know which "trick" to aggregate demand will be greater, the temporary boost to spending or the permanent boost.

One way to get a clear answer -- in favor of Krugman's hypothesis that the temporary spending is more potent -- is to assume that bonds as net wealth fails for a policy rule but not for a single period policy surprise (the temporary boost in spending).  In contrast, the traditional Keynesian view is to think that bonds are also net wealth in the medium run and perhaps the long run too and then we are back to not knowing whether the permanent or temporary spending boost does more for aggregate demand.  Or you might think, as I have suggested, that whether bonds are viewed as net wealth in the short run will depend on the size of the spending boost.  Many different assumptions are possible and thus many different results are possible.

Alternatively, you might compare $100 billion today (and no more) to $100 billion each year, every year.  You could call that "temporary" vs. "permanent" although I suspect the dominant effects will fall out of "small" vs. "large."

The latter, permanent boost to spending will give a bigger boost to aggregate demand overall (unless again you neuter it by applying Ricardian Equivalence to the rule but not the single period policy).  It also will lead to more crowding out.  Do note that in the early periods of this policy taxes need not rise by $100 billion for each year but rather the early installments can be paid off over time.

It is less clear whether the permanent spending boost leads to a bigger AD shift only for today.  It will if you apply the same degree of bonds as net wealth to the rule and single period policy, and if you think that the later periods of government spending will add net value, thus creating positive feedback through the long-run wealth effect.

It is also unclear if the larger, permanent spending boost creates more "stimulus per dollar" (as opposed to more stimulus in the aggregate or more stimulus for the single period).  That will depend on whether we are in the range where the stimulus has increasing returns to scale (maybe a certain critical mass is needed, as I believe Mark Thoma has suggested), constant returns to scale, or diminishing or even negative returns to scale, because of eventual crowding out. 

Overall the Keynesian effects can mean either the permanent or the temporary spending boost has a bigger effect and there are also a number of ways of defining what a "bigger effect" might mean.  This analysis has more variations than does the Poisoned Pawn Sicilian.

Posted by Tyler Cowen on February 2, 2009 at 07:52 AM in Economics | Permalink

Comments

so if media coverage of the trick reduces its effectiveness, does this mean you are hurting the chances of the stimulus working by writing about it?

Posted by: DK at Feb 2, 2009 8:13:56 AM

Do you KNOW how many variations there are in the Poisoned Pawn Sicilian?

Posted by: momama at Feb 2, 2009 8:16:09 AM

Ricardian equivalence is not relevant here. Ricardian equivalence tells you that it does not matter how a given stream of government spending is financed. It does not tell you what happens when you make changes to the stream of spending. Even if people do not consider government bonds as net wealth, an increase in government spending may raise incomes if you are in a demand constrained state, as the world is right now. And in this case since the effect on output is based on the government's demand for goods and services, $100 today will have a greater impact than $100 spread over time.

Posted by: Jyotirmoy Bhattacharya at Feb 2, 2009 8:19:56 AM

Is it easier to trick people "a lot all at once" or "a little bit by bit over time"?

I don't know, but I'm sure the answer involves Paul Krugman.

Posted by: Bob Murphy at Feb 2, 2009 8:20:00 AM

This assumes the spending is temporary and I see no indication of that, other than the tax cuts.

Health IT, look at the FBI IT projects (or most any government IT project), they are black holes.

Add to that anytime funding is not increased year over year at least as much as inflation the media calls it cut in funding, there is no way the other funding will be temporary.

Posted by: Marc at Feb 2, 2009 8:33:23 AM

Let's set aside government and talk about another monopoly leader in 1980, IBM.

What happened when IBM unexpectedly purchased, non-exclusively, DOS for the IBM microcomputer? That single purchase reset the entire microcomputer business and yielded the economies of scale for IBM compatible PCs.

Prior to that we had a microcomputer industry whose future was uncertain, made up of various Commodores, Altairs, etc.

The trick was that IBM added an important data point to our estimate of where micro-computers were going. That data point was the largest data point in the industry, larger than anything previously set. Hence it reset out estimators for the PC industry.

Posted by: M at Feb 2, 2009 9:38:31 AM

A few days ago you were talking about placebos, and having a large, one time shock probably counts as a placebo in addition to the effects you talk about above. I think the reason for this is the cost is spread across a society but the stimulus will hit individuals who will spend it, most people have little or no future time reference, and even businesses have time horizons of only a few years. The taxes will not be considered by the participants in any of these scenarios.

Posted by: mickslam at Feb 2, 2009 9:40:34 AM

Yo Bob Murphy

Got a beef about Krugman's POV, terrific; let's see it.

Loose the ad Hominum please; otherwise I get the ideological heat not the light.

Let there be more light, less heat in these blog comments Write editorials somewhere else,

Maybe MMalkin, WSJ, Lew Rockwell, Rush's blog are looking for a few good opinionators.

Posted by: Stevehar at Feb 2, 2009 9:51:37 AM

Tyler, Paul Krugman reads your blog and today says, in essence, that you misunderstand that government spending counts as part of GDP and employment. Is that right? (That seems to be the belief of some of your commenters, e.g. 'assman' in comments on your last post.)

Or are you assuming that, even when their are slack resources, then, because of Ricardian equivalence, people instantly will cut back on consumption and/or investment by 100% of the amount of government purchases. I.e. when they hear that gov't is spending a 127 billion on new bridges in 2009, everyone will buy less food, housing, TV sets, etc in the 2009 so they will save enough to fully offset their share of all the future financing cost of the bridge. Such behavior doesn't strike me as rational (why not save a bit every year, instead of all at once?), let alone plausible.

Posted by: a student of economics at Feb 2, 2009 10:09:53 AM

Tyler - while you are correct that variations in net taxes (taxes or
transfer payments) will not impact consumption and hence aggregate demand
in a Barro-Ricardian model, not all variations in government spending have
to be changes in transfer payments. A one-shot increase in government
purchases in a Barro-Ricardian model of consumption has only a very small
offsetting effect on consumption and hence will significantly increase
aggregate demand - as Krugman and others (e.g., me( have pointed out
repeatedly.

Posted by: pgl at Feb 2, 2009 10:23:48 AM

Tyler - while you are correct that variations in net taxes (taxes or
transfer payments) will not impact consumption and hence aggregate demand
in a Barro-Ricardian model, not all variations in government spending have
to be changes in transfer payments. A one-shot increase in government
purchases in a Barro-Ricardian model of consumption has only a very small
offsetting effect on consumption and hence will significantly increase
aggregate demand - as Krugman and others (e.g., me( have pointed out
repeatedly.

Posted by: pgl at Feb 2, 2009 10:24:27 AM

Ricardian Equivalence is a silly idea because people don't understand government finance. If people believe bonds are net wealth, then they are. If people don't believe they will have to pay for higher spending now with higher taxes later, they will be tricked, 100% of the time. And they won't learn over time because the causal chain is too long, complex, and filled with deliberate deception (it is politics, after all), and they don't live long enough to figure it it all out.

Don't believe it? Ask a random voter and see what you get. Ask someone who bought war bonds in 1943 what they thought then, and what they think now.

Posted by: Noah Yetter at Feb 2, 2009 10:41:27 AM

To me one thing that pops out of Tyler's analysis here is the utter futility of settling this issue theoretically.

There are plenty of models one might use, and they presuppose different models of the human. Are economists on either side of the debate really sure that they have the correct model of a human? Doesn't that seem presumptuous, in advance of firm empirical evidence?

Further, any policy based on "fooling human beings" has serious moving target issues. Human beings learn, and adapt their behavior. The extent of fooling in a given case will depend on technological and social circumstances like media saturation, education level, etc. which are different in every situation.

So basically, there is some serious model uncertainty going on. Unfortunately the model-parameter-confidence-weighted "policy blend" approach will probably not appease those who feel a giant package based on their model is absolutely necessary.

Posted by: mk at Feb 2, 2009 10:53:19 AM

Stevehar wrote:

Yo Bob Murphy
Got a beef about Krugman's POV, terrific; let's see it.

Word up, Steve, lemme lay a triple play on ya: one, two, three. Peace out.

Posted by: Bob Murphy at Feb 2, 2009 11:50:07 AM

Student,

How is that different in assuming they will save the entirety of a one time tax cut? I still don't get the Keynsian reluctance to simply borrow a vast amount of money and give every citizen an equal stipend for the stimulus. That way you don't have to worry about having politicians coordinating the spending.

Posted by: Yancey Ward at Feb 2, 2009 12:01:03 PM

Krugman's reply is waiting for an answer. Bhattacharya is right, PGL is right, Krugman is right, Cowen is wrong. The popularity of Ricardian Equivalence in the Ivory Tower has always surprised me. It is a far-fetched claim even in its correct setting (ie., the supposed equivalence between paying with debt or with taxes a given stream of gov't spending). Does the fact that your great-great-great-grandchildren will face higher taxes to pay the national debt affect your current consumption? But even such a ridiculous possibility has nothing to do with the effects of a temporary increase in government spending.

Posted by: lucas at Feb 2, 2009 12:02:21 PM

To Bob Murphy: There was a portly third baseman for Atlanta by that name; I do hope you aren't him, because it would affect my image of him. I'm keeping my hopes up, because, having read the 3 posts [at what I gather is your own blog] your response to Stevehar linked to, it's apparent that the issue Stevehar raised is more serious than he might have known heretofore: It is not that you misundertood Mr Cowan's blog here for a site comparable to Little Green Footballs or Ace of Spades H.Q., where readers' ad hominem attacks are not just tolerated but encouraged, often by opening posts of unsurpassable venom; it is that you are not able to distinguish between ad hominem attacks and high level economic theory.

[There is one other possibility, being that you are actually part of a concerted disinformation and propaganda effort to dissuade Americans from accepting advice from J.M. Keynes. I discount that primary on the basis that your first name is "Bob" [here], & "Robert" [on your blog], but in neither case is it suggested to be "Dick", no matter how much more in keeping with the content of your posts here and there.]

Posted by: LabDancer at Feb 2, 2009 12:49:33 PM

The point is correct that Ricardian Equivalence in theory only holds
for a given level of government spending. So, a tax cut will not stimulate
under a constant stream of government spending (tell that to Republicans in
Congress!). As pgl showed over on Econospeak, an increase in government
purchases of goods and services may have a positive impact on GDP.

Of course, the real killer to Ricardian Equivalence has been empirical
evidence in the US. Supposedly a tax cut will lead to an increase in
the savings rate, hence the lack of stimulative impact. In fact, the
tax cuts by both Reagan and W. Bush were followed by declines in the
savings rate, so maybe the Republicans in Congress are not completely stupid.

Posted by: Barkley Rosser at Feb 2, 2009 12:53:42 PM

Barkely,

The tax part of the Ricardian equivalence result is about lump sum taxation, not tax rates. Tax rates may well have other effects. Maybe you are talking about lump sum taxation though.

Weren't the Reagan and Bush cuts changes in rates?

Posted by: notsure at Feb 2, 2009 1:16:15 PM

Yancey,

If I get a one time tax cut, and I am a true believer in the permanent income hypothesis, then I should spread the money out over the rest of my life, spending only a small fraction of it this year, and saving the rest. This is true even if I don't believe in Ricardian equivalence. In addition, if I also am a true believer in Ricardian equivalence, then I will save a bit extra to pay for the future tax increases that will now be necessary. Either way, relatively little will be spent this year.

In contrast, by definition, 100% of gov't spending is spent. As a second order effect, some additional spending might even result from the "multiplier" effect as the recipients of the gov't spending use the income. If those recipients were previously unemployed, then this income crowds out nothing and to a first approximation, is equivalent to the tax cut from there on. The difference is GDP has already gone up by 100% of the value of gov't spending.

Posted by: a student of economics at Feb 2, 2009 1:34:50 PM

Oh, so the goal is simply to up the headline GDP in the near term? So, why not simply redefine the tax cut as the buying of 5 minutes of people's time it takes to deposit the check. We count the entire tax cut as government spending, GDP goes up the 100% of the tax cut, and we get the multiplier effects from the second order spending of the stimulus check recipients.

Posted by: Yancey Ward at Feb 2, 2009 2:00:20 PM

Yancey asks: "So, why not simply redefine the tax cut as the buying of 5 minutes of people's time it takes to deposit the check"

This would be a good analogy if you believe that gov't spending has zero value. Some people believe a dollar spent on public goods is worth more than a dollar spent elsewhere on average, some think its worth less than a dollar. However, do you really believe it's worth zero? Fill in your preferred value and add that to the multiplier for tax cuts (at least when the economy has slack).

Posted by: a student of economics at Feb 2, 2009 2:14:53 PM

student,

I don't have to believe it has zero value. I would just like to see the support from the Keynesians that the government spending proposed has greater value than which would accrue from the citizens in their collective spending/saving of the same amount of stimulus checks. So far, no one has actually shown a cost/benefit for the proposed government spending outside the simple-minded argument that it adds 100% to the GDP number.

Posted by: Yancey Ward at Feb 2, 2009 2:35:41 PM

notsure,

The story is all about budget balances. Holds for tax rate changes as well as one
time lump sum changes, as long as a cut in either increases budget deficits. Of
course, if one is in a favorable Laffer curve situation as Russia was in 2001,
then the story does not hold, because the tax rate cut will raise revenues. It
is the expectation of the necessity for a future tax rate (or whatever) increase
that triggers the increased savings today to cover it.

Needless to say, at this point I am unaware of any professional economists who
believe that we are on the favorable side of the Laffer curve, although I am aware
of a whole bunch of US politicians who profess to believe it as a matter of party
line dogma.

Posted by: Barkley Rosser at Feb 2, 2009 3:15:43 PM

Barkley,

I agree with much of what you say.

My point was simply that Ricardian equivalence does not mean that all taxation is irrelevant--it strictly applies to lump sum taxes, and taxes that feedback to spending plans.

I am reading now that putting lump appears to be lump sum tax rebates into the stimulus is a good thing. And those statements seem to be made by politicians who have argued for Ricardian equivalence in the past.

There seems to be a lot of confusion out there about this. Your statement mixes rates with lump sum taxation--the thing in the actual Ricardian models. As soon as the rates are changed, the we will get an effect of taxation on output.

Ricardian equivalence is that the timing of lump sum taxes doesn't matter. Tax rate changes are not neutral in the Ricardian models because the rates may matter for marginal decisions.

Hence the tax rate cuts are evidence about Ricardian equivalence if you add some other statement, such as 'the incentive effects of taxes are small' Perhaps a fine statement, but it is not what you wrote. And the key to interpreting the evidence I think.

Sorry to be picky, but these are big issues-and are going to matter a lot going forward. We need to be precise exactly because people will take the evidence out of context.

Posted by: at Feb 2, 2009 4:41:45 PM

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