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The economics of vengeance
Within a given country, people who have been victims of the same kind of crime (here, a burglary) tend to be more vengeful, but not if they have been victims of a different crime, like mugging.
Of course the basic idea comes from Adam Smith. Here is the full story, which features commentary by GMU economists. Here is my previous post on the topic.
Posted by Tyler Cowen on July 29, 2008 at 11:32 AM in Political Science | Permalink
Comments
Or to rephrase Tom Wolfe, a conservative is a liberal who has been mugged twice.
Posted by: Rue Des Quatre Vents at Jul 29, 2008 11:48:12 AM
Have you ever heard the old Klingon proverb that revenge is best served by someone with a low time preference?
Posted by: Franklin Harris at Jul 29, 2008 12:38:08 PM
makes sense. i wonder if countries who've
been invaded once are more likely to resist
intensely the second time.
Posted by: mike kenny at Jul 29, 2008 12:38:43 PM
What Mr. Mocan found most surprising was that women turned out to be more vengeful than men. If a woman had been a victim of burglary, she was 10 percent more likely to impose a prison sentence; for men the figure was 5 percent.
I'm not sure why this would be surprising. First, doesn't it correspond exactly to the cultural stereotype? You know, "the female of the species is more dangerous than the male." Second, wouldn't you expect people who might feel themselves to be more "at risk" for whatever reason -- the young, the poor, the elderly, the infirm, the female -- to be marginally more willing to inflict deterrent punishments on the people who put them and their like at risk?
Posted by: Taeyoung at Jul 29, 2008 12:40:44 PM
Actually,
France rolled over for the Germans the second time it invaded. Germany was completely taken aback by how easily the French surrendered.
Posted by: A Stoner at Jul 29, 2008 1:15:34 PM
To add additional historical color, the 1st (or maybe zeroth) time France was invaded in the Franco-Prussian war in 1871, the French resisted very stubbornly, arguably past the point where further resistance would have any effect on the outcome. Ironically, in that war Prussia/Germany had no intention of occupying France or creating a puppet state, and France got off relatively lightly (compared to WWII)
Posted by: MS at Jul 29, 2008 1:36:52 PM
"Actually, France rolled over for the Germans the second time it invaded. Germany was completely taken aback by how easily the French surrendered."
So totally not my fault.
Posted by: DeGaulle at Jul 29, 2008 2:09:39 PM
"an economist’s definition of hatred is the willingness to pay a price to inflict harm on others."
So, is love the willingness to pay a price to inflict benefit?
What about the unwillingness to pay a price to inflict harm on others? I think that's called economics.
I think this is basically how academic departments persist, for the people to get what they deserve from the only people aware of what is coming to them exacts such a huge toll on potential vengeance seekers.
Posted by: Andrew at Jul 29, 2008 4:26:18 PM
Andrew,
Random unnecessary aside of the day: when Adam Smith first defined hatred, he made a distinction between being willing to suffer a cost to inflict harm, and simply being happy when harm is inflicted on another. He designated hatred as the latter and called "resentment" the thing Glaeser calls "hatred".
Posted by: ryan yin at Jul 29, 2008 7:30:56 PM
The French didn't just wave a white flag to the first German that showed up. The German military was simply very successful against the French. The French did then surrender and set up the Vichy collaborationist regime, but they did genuinely put up a fight before then.
Posted by: TGGP at Jul 30, 2008 1:04:24 AM
and the british running in Durkerke?
and btw It was Dumas, in The Count of Montecristo who said : Vengeance is a dish that is better served cold.that were Klingon , very original,saying comes
Posted by: k at Jul 30, 2008 2:09:30 PM
Give you a 中古車|二手車,which one you will choice,i like all.
Posted by: 租車 at Oct 2, 2008 9:30:01 PM
