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Should we let people sell votes?

Mankiw says no, Caplan says the real problem is voting itself.  Of course we let private shareholders sell their votes all the time, and uncontroversially, so the real issue is how politics is different. 

Say society has a 9999 people.  The marginal private value of a (political) vote is almost zero, except for its feel-good benefit (see also Gelman on altruistic motives to motivate voting).  Yet the total value of 5000 votes -- a winning tally -- is the size of the largest wealth transfer that the winner could impose on everyone else.  The result will mimic a model of self-interested voting but with only one self-interested voter -- the owner of the purchased votes -- having a say.  And that winner will be the conscience-less (non-liquidity-constrained) person who has the most to gain from buying up votes and getting things his way.

Of course Bryan, in other contexts, has shown that expressive voting is more likely than the self-interested voting model, at least under standard democracy.  I would rather have expressive voting than what is explained directly above, even though expressive voting is somewhat irrational. 

Maybe voters will end up with sudden attacks of conscientiousness and be unwilling to sell their votes; to that extent vote-selling won't much matter and of course then it can't bring gains either.

Now let's go back to the corporate case.  When it comes to policy, shareholders might not agree on means but everyone favors the same end of profit maximization.  A winning coalition of shareholders can't do much to extract rents from other shareholders, unless of course they are exploiting those other shareholders in their other roles as consumers or input suppliers.  But such effects are usually small (as opposed to the widespread possibilities for redistribution through politics) and thus vote selling works just fine for corporations.  There is no simple way that shareholder A can buy up the votes of shareholders B and C and then just screw them over.

Coda: There is a potential problem with vote-selling in corporations, again relating back to the difference between marginal and average value for a vote.  Shareholders might be afraid to sell to a takeover artist, instead wishing to hold on for the ride and reap gains from the change in corporate control.  But if no one sells the takeover cannot take place and no one reaps the gains.  In other words, there is too little vote selling; that's Grossman and Hart, 1980.  Alex once wrote an excellent paper on this problem (but where is the link Alex?) and showed that the free-rider problem among shareholders can usually be solved by random Nash strategies; note that the final outcome will depend on whether there is a countable or uncountable infinity of shareholders; please don't laugh!

The bottom line: There are good economic arguments for why we allow corporate vote-selling but not political vote-selling.

Posted by Tyler Cowen on November 23, 2007 at 06:44 AM in Political Science | Permalink

Comments

There's been some research on storable votes (Casella) and qualitative voting (Hortala-Vallve) which is not so far away. The idea loosely is that voting is purely ordinal and, it makes sense to get some kind of cardinal measures. At least for a single person between issues/elections, so why not trade my vote in an election where I don't care much for the outcome to one where I care (and you don't). This looks a lot like vote buying/selling but there's no outside money - the designer sets the endowment, which makes the whole thing a bit more palatable.

Posted by: hb at Nov 23, 2007 9:24:54 AM

Why not tie voting to income taxes. If you're willing to pay an extra amount in income taxes (say 1% more - minimum of $200) you get an extra vote. For each 1% increase, that's another vote. Then, the money you spend buying an election goes not to advertising and media, but instead to the government.

Posted by: VC at Nov 23, 2007 9:35:41 AM

"so the real issue is how politics is different"

Um, because corporations are voluntary arrangements and government is not?

Posted by: KipEsquire at Nov 23, 2007 9:44:36 AM

One problem with contracts to sell votes is that the winner takes over an institution that can change the underlying law, and thereby effectively alter the contract unilaterally. On this view, the solution is to allow vote-selling contracts but make them unenforceable against the seller. That restores a rough equilibrium by giving both parties the ability to renege. The secret ballot is then just a technique to prevent private enforcement.

Posted by: James Grimmelman at Nov 23, 2007 10:23:32 AM

Charles Blankart and Gerrit Koester write:

"Gordon Tullock offers the simple vote-transfer mechanism (1967). Every adult person is a member of the parliament (as in a popular assembly). Citizens can transfer their vote to anyone they so choose. The natural choice is a person whom they expect to have nearly the same preferences and to vote as they would. Those who go to parliament will vote with as many votes as they become the representative of."

"Accountability increases because representative shirking is easily observed, and voters select representatives in a contestable market. As representatives are linked more closely to their voters, the transmission of preferences into politics will be less distorted. Under such a regime, representatives would not necessarily join a fixed coalition, but rather aim at increasing their 're-election' probability by voting issue by issue as closely as possible to their voters’ preferences. And the government would no longer be either parliamentary or presidential (in the American sense)."

More at p. 177 of:

http://www.econjournalwatch.org/pdf/BlankartKoesterSymposiumMay2007.pdf

Posted by: Daniel Klein at Nov 23, 2007 11:02:37 AM

Actually, corporate shareholders cannot sell votes. They can only sell their shares; the voting rights are not alienable from the share, unless the firm's governance structure was set up to allow something equivalent to vote selling in the first place (e.g., dual-class stock).

Posted by: a lawyer at Nov 23, 2007 11:30:36 AM

Actually, corporate shareholders cannot sell votes. They can only sell their shares; the voting rights are not alienable from the share, unless the firm's governance structure was set up to allow something equivalent to vote selling in the first place (e.g., dual-class stock).

Posted by: a lawyer at Nov 23, 2007 11:32:58 AM

Two issues here

1)the way these voting rights are gained-political ones by birth;corporate ones by paying money.
2)exit options -political, you can emigrate after selling your vote but most people don't dig
this idea;corporate,the corporation has very little say overall about how citizens conduct
themselves.

Vote selling markets seem to be repugnant because of 1 although this may change with time. 2
causes pareto-inoptimal outcomes.

The biggest problem in vote-selling seems to be whole objective of it. Usually, it will be to
cut taxes on wealthy, privatize some govt operations, that type of thing. A sufficiently
heterogenous might incorrectly evaluate the discounted present value of these negative things
and might sell out for too less. The problem,thus, as I see is the same as facing every market
in the world-information asymmetry and free-riding.

My conjecture is that vote-selling will be lot more efffecient in small homogenous societies.


Posted by: sa at Nov 23, 2007 1:26:31 PM

"When it comes to policy, shareholders might not agree on means but everyone favors the same end of profit maximization."


Uh, no Tyler, this is false. As an investment professional I can tell you that most shareowners support profit maximizing behavior most of the time. It is NOT the case that ALL shareholders support profit maximization ALL of the time...not even close in fact.

Many many shareholders have a vague belief in corporate responsibility and support firms doing things that may be good for society but are not good for the bottom line. Then there are the individuals and funds that specifically engage in green, or social conscious etc. investing. Some folks simply don't buy certain stocks, others buy stock with the hope of causing changes in corporate behavior. Then there may be employee shareholders such as union members who have reason to oppose profit maximizing behavior. Sometimes executives (who are themselves big shareowners) push for actions that do not maximize profit because they want to feel good and look socially responsible to their peers. Take Hank Paulson and some of the environmental work he had GS do as an example. Or executives may wish to empire build or simply increase their pay packages. Examples of shareholders with interests other than profit-maximizing behavior can go on and on.

The simple fact is that for a variety of reasons shareholders are simply not unified behind profit maximization. Looking at a corporation as a unitary rational actor united behind the bottom line is not accurate. There are too many conflicting beliefs and interests.

Posted by: Notsofast at Nov 23, 2007 3:35:47 PM

Voting is rational. When I vote I signal to politicians that I am watching, I am involved, and I am a potential vote that can not be fully ignored. While it is true that on the margin my vote may not matter in any given election, the fact that I vote as part of some group with shared interests means that politicians must be aware of the power of that voting block. For example, the vote of any single senior citizen may not matter but the fact that seniors will vote as a block with shared interests means that their interests are of concern to politicians. It is rational for a senior citizen to vote as part of a collective action, even without the group getting together. It is rational for me to demonstrate the potential power of people who share my views.

If my vote (and views) will not tip the election, as a single voter I have no impact, but I can still force politicians to respond to my views if I am part of a group that can tip an election.

Should I be able to sell my vote? No. If I can sell my vote directly, voting could become an even worse spoils system. Government would become a game of wealth transfers. If I refused to use the power of government to reward my friends and punish my enemies, I am at a competitive disadvantage.

We would soon become the corporate state that Russia seems to want to be. If you accept the power of the government to run a spoils system, then I fear the next step is secret police and private security to take that which you lack the funds to buy. Once given the power to ignore property rights, ruling elites may decide that coercion is cheaper and more effective then auctions. Or look at the current government in Venezuela. First you make promises of wealth transfers in exchange for votes. Then you ignore property rights, consolidate power, and reward the smaller power center that maintains your power.

Posted by: DanC at Nov 23, 2007 4:45:30 PM

A winning coalition of shareholders can't do much to extract rents from other shareholders,

Nonsense. Corporate control has enormous value.

Posted by: Bernard Yomtov at Nov 23, 2007 11:36:08 PM

We already let a few people sell their votes. The brokers who intermediate this process are known as "lobbyists".

Posted by: at Nov 24, 2007 12:28:21 AM

A winning coalition of shareholders can't do much to extract rents from other shareholders

Can someone remind me -- and I'm genuinely curious here -- what stops a 50%+1-holding coalition from permanently suspending the dividend and voting themselves a "salary" that would have been the dividend?

Oh, and btw, the number of shareholders is countable and finite.

Posted by: Person at Nov 24, 2007 11:25:50 AM

Professor Cowen,
In terms of corporate voting, you have overlooked the problem of "empty voting." This has become a greater problem as the assets under management of hedge funds have grown. Federal securities regulations prevent mutual funds from taking short positions or other classic hedges; as a result, when a mutual fund takes a long position in an equity, you know that the mutual fund is long. When a hedge fund takes a long position, however, the fund may nonetheless be neutral or even net short by taking an offsetting short position. The problem is that SEC disclosures only requires investment companies, be they regulated mutual funds or (relatively) unregulated hedge funds, to disclose their long positions, not their short positions. As a result, hedge funds can essentially buy large blocks of stock and offsetting short positions, leaving them only with the votes -- but no interest in the performance of the company. We'll call this firm, Firm A. The hedge fund can then buy a long position in another firm that stands to benefit from Firm A's troubles -- call this one Firm B. The hedge fund can then vote its Firm A shares against Firm A's interest so that the fund's Firm B position benefits. This problem of empty voting arises quite frequently in the M&A context, and many lawyers, judges, and law-and-economics scholars are no longer quite so sanguine about vote-selling.

Posted by: A Harvard JD at Nov 24, 2007 11:47:40 AM

This problem of empty voting arises quite frequently in the M&A context, and many lawyers, judges, and law-and-economics scholars are no longer quite so sanguine about vote-selling.

The empty vote derivative is a much better analogy to political voting than normal (non-empty) voting shares. Political votes, like empty votes, are not tied to any particular share of ownership, tax payment, or similar. If empty voting is becoming a small problem in the corporate world, political voting is probably already a big problem in the political world.

On the other hand, empty voting in the political world may be a very good thing, because we don't policies based on maximizing the profit of tax collection. The information-free nature of voting may be a feature, not a bug. A similar protective effect might be obtained by setting tax rates and government budgets by a random number generator, rather than letting any self-serving group of people set them.

Posted by: nick at Nov 24, 2007 7:31:17 PM

I think that 50%+1 coalition does not support stealing the dividend because that is a self-defeating move. It has a low benefit given the alternatives. Such a move tells other investors that they cannot profit from their investment. So they sell stock - causing the value of shares to plummet. That is probably worth more in terms of wealth than the dividend. Then those investors back that company's rival instead. The rival, now flush with cash, expands and begins to win market share. The 50%+1 company cannot raise additional financing because their stock price is low and their behavior has alienated potential investors. 50%+1 company eventually becomes bankrupt. Because the 50%+1 shareholders are now seen as untrustworthy, most boards and shareholders keep an eye out for them to prevent future shenanigans.

Also, because the +1 margin is so low, there is a huge potential for defection. You only need 1 guy with 1 share to leave and the whole scheme fails.

Posted by: Chris Durnell at Nov 26, 2007 12:44:06 PM

But don't we essentially sell our political votes? Voting patterns seem to favor the politician that promises the most stuff.

Sure, its not a direct transfer, but its not far off.

Posted by: Chris at Dec 2, 2007 2:29:04 PM

It should be legal to sell our votes, but illegal to offer or request proof that a certain vote was cast. That way, people with no voting preference (or no viable choice) still have the opportunity to benefit from their right to vote, while people with preferences can still cast whatever vote they want.

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