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Does gerrymandering cause polarization?

I used to think so, but not any more:

We assess whether there is a strong causal relationship between congressional districting and polarization. We find very little evidence for such a link. First, we show that congressional polarization is primarily a function of the differences in how Democrats and Republicans represent the same districts rather than a function of which districts each party represents or the distribution of constituency preferences. Second, we conduct simulations to gauge the level of polarization under various “neutral” districting procedures. We find that the actual levels of polarization are not much higher than those produced by the simulations. We do find that gerrymandering has increased the Republican seat share in the House; however, this increase is not an important source of polarization.

That's from the very accomplished Howard Rosenthal.  The paper is here, hat tip to BookForum

So what does cause voter polarization?  Here is a counterintuitive hypothesis: political extremists are most active when they fear that the extremists from the other side might win.  Each candidate requires those extremists for support and resources, and when a candidate wins he or she then must polarize to some extent.  If you think of the extremists as motivated by fear of the other side, in a lopsided district they are more likely to stay at home and keep their mouths shut, thereby allowing the candidate to straddle the center.  It's a close race that brings out the partisans and gives them some measure of ex post control.

Might this be true?

We examine DW-Nominate scores for members of the House of Representatives who served from 1993 through 2000. The most politically extreme members tended to represent politically competitive districts, a result at odds with traditional Downsian expectations.

File this one under "I'm still fundamentally confused."

Posted by Tyler Cowen on October 29, 2007 at 07:27 AM in Political Science | Permalink

Comments

File this one under "I'm still fundamentally confused." Well, that's encouraging for those of us who are often confused. :)

Posted by: shawn at Oct 29, 2007 8:20:47 AM

Can't convince someone from California..

Posted by: edwardseco at Oct 29, 2007 9:43:49 AM

The hypothesis seems very plausible to me. You can assume that whoever wins, a set of dominant policy preferences in a region will ensure that you are not threatened on your hot button issues. When it is competitive, which is to say that the candidates with plausible chances to win can come from opposite points of view, the difference can be perceived as 'more dead babies' or 'loss of body integrity'. The fringes have to fight harder in that situation, don't they?

Posted by: JasonL at Oct 29, 2007 9:59:08 AM

The King paper and explanation seems plausible. But why examine data over the 1993-2000 period, during which political boundaries were mostly set? Wouldn't it be more revealing to look at, say, districts in Texas before and after redistricting to see if changes in the competitive nature of districts affected the fortunes of more extreme politicians.

Haven't read the paper yet, so maybe King explains.

Posted by: Mike Giberson at Oct 29, 2007 10:31:01 AM

I didn't read the paper or anything, but I wanted to distinguish between voter polarization and representative polarization. I think congress is more polarized than our people. And gerrymandering certainly would help congress become more polarized.

The peer effects that might make voters more polarized because they live together aren't changed by gerrymandering, of course. Redrawing political boundaries doesn't give an individual new neighbors.

Posted by: SM at Oct 29, 2007 10:31:38 AM

A better question would be "does gerrymandering cause democracy" ...

but as I've mentioned in past comments, I think our two-party system is the answer to a lot of these questions. If one party decides to send a strong polarized message, the other is drawn in, whether it wants to or not.

Posted by: odograph at Oct 29, 2007 10:39:06 AM

Shorter: tactical polarization.

Posted by: odograph at Oct 29, 2007 10:40:10 AM

My guess is that if there was compulsory voting, as in Australia,
then this hypothesis would be a non-starter. In only works were likelihood
to vote is significantly variable. Otherwise duopoly theory theory says
locate in the centre. Combatting apathy is the correct palliative.

Posted by: reason at Oct 29, 2007 10:51:16 AM

I don't care about facts :) The theory of gerrymandering says that it's manipulated for biased outcomes. I'm still in favor of neutral district lines...

Posted by: David Zetland at Oct 29, 2007 11:03:54 AM

I lived in Memphis in the 80's and 90's. The city has long been racially polarized, presumably because the racial makeup of voters is close to being equal. Both blacks and whites have played the race card in order to increase voter participation. But the men elected to the mayor's office seemed to be much more moderate than many of their supporters.

A federal judge ruled in the late 80's that majority rule in Memphis's at large elections was a violation of the Voting Rights Act. Since then, the mayor of Memphis has always been elected with only a plurality of voters. I would have guessed that an extremist could have sneaked in under that arrangement. But black moderate Willie Herenton has won every mayoral election since 1991.

Posted by: John Dewey at Oct 29, 2007 11:21:01 AM

My limited experience volunteering for campaigns makes me think that in competitive races, candidates lean more heavily on their base... and when they lean more heavily on their base, the base has more sway over them.

So that would argue for why competitive races tend to produce more "extreme" candidates.

Posted by: Geoff at Oct 29, 2007 12:24:58 PM

No mention of divergent philosophies on the role of the individual in society? The governments sole power of compulsion creates a divergent view on who gets forced to do what.

Class warfare, religious values, and the democrats love of slavery.....I mean socialism, are really all reflections of the divergent views on the individual.

Posted by: Jacob at Oct 29, 2007 1:44:40 PM

The hypothesis you call "counterintuitive" is not so at all. Eveny political partisan believes that he is more "moderate" and closer to the "center" than his opponents. For example, just today I read: "On a scale of 1 to 10, it's like the GOP is moving right from 8 to 9 while the Democratic party is moving left from 4 to 3.5."

Posted by: sammler at Oct 29, 2007 1:45:29 PM

I read the paper, and see a serious problem.

The author believes that computers were only powerful enough to gerrymander effectively starting in the 90s; in reality, powerful minicomputers and workstations were available well beforehand. He uses 1990 as a pre-computer-gerrymander baseline for comparison, when in reality it started well before then. Garbage In, Garbage Out, as we computer guys like to say. I'm working on a longer post.

Posted by: Jon Kay at Oct 29, 2007 3:24:19 PM

test

Posted by: Jane2 at Oct 29, 2007 6:10:26 PM

Full post on the paper here.

Posted by: Jon Kay at Oct 30, 2007 1:39:07 AM

Extremists aren't afraid of other extremists; They are afraid of ordinary people.

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