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Is economic inequality bad for growth?

How many times have you heard that meme?  It turns out that political inequality is possibly at fault.  Acemoglu et. al. report:

Is inequality harmful for economic growth?  Is the underdevelopment of Latin America related to its unequal distribution of wealth?  A recently emerging consensus claims not only that economic inequality has detrimental effects on economic growth in general, but also that differences in economic inequality across the American continent during the 19th century are responsible for the radically different economic performances of the north and south of the continent.  In this paper we investigate this hypothesis using unique 19th century micro data on land ownership and political office holding in the state of Cundinamarca, Colombia.  Our results shed considerable doubt on this consensus.  Even though Cundinamarca is indeed more unequal than the Northern United States at the time, within Cundinamarca municipalities that were more unequal in the 19th century (as measured by the land gini) are more developed today.  Instead, we argue that political rather than economic inequality might be more important in understanding long-run development paths and document that municipalities with greater political inequality, as measured by political concentration, are less developed today.  We also show that during this critical period the politically powerful were able to amass greater wealth, which is consistent with one of the channels through which political inequality might affect economic allocations.  Overall our findings shed doubt on the conventional wisdom and suggest that research on long-run comparative development should investigate the implications of political inequality as well as those of economic inequality.

In other words, at least from that data set, the real problem seems to be rent-seeking behavior through the political process.  Here is the link.  Here is a non-gated version of the paper.

Posted by Tyler Cowen on July 2, 2007 at 05:38 AM in Political Science | Permalink

Comments

Isn't this a bit like saying that "genes don't cause X, environment causes X" or vice versa when it's blatantly obvious that additive effects take the system beyond a critical threshold or that interactions are actually relevant?
Economic inequality causing political inequality which causes slow growth IS economic inequality slowing growth, just as guns firing bullets which kill people IS guns killing people.

Posted by: michael vassar at Jul 2, 2007 8:42:44 AM

Powerful and cogent analysis, in my view. We have 75 million disenfranchised largely poor individuals in the US - those under 18. Getting them enfranchised (directly or through proxies - parents) could shift say $750 billion to (or toward) the less affluent through politics. This assumes the politicians would shift say $1000 of government funds over 5-10 years toward the newly enfranchised to curry favor and get votes from the kids (or their proxies).

Posted by: cfw at Jul 2, 2007 9:08:08 AM

Well Michael, your single variable called economic inequality and it's unicausal relationship to political inequality strikes me as simplistic.

A. Different types of economic inequality may have different effects on political inequality.

If somebody makes a lot of money in the free market, that may not impact political inequality as much as somebody who makes a lot of money by being tight with the local mayor and getting city-funded loans to buy land and then getting the loans forgiven.

B. In terms of reverse causation, political inequality may generate economic inequality of the latter "bad rent-seeking" type, but not economic inequality of the former "good productive" type. In fact, political inequality may increase the "bad" type of economic inequality at the expense of the benign type of economic inequality.

In fact, if one creates more political inequality to get rid of the relatively harmless types of economic inequality, then the net effect may be bad for development.

Frankly, I'm not automatically opposed to a simple theory that says, beyond a certain threshhold, economic inequality, even of the relatively just variety, generates political inequality.

But whether that's actually the cause of retarded economic development in many countries remains an open question.

Posted by: Keith at Jul 2, 2007 3:22:46 PM

michael vassar: What kind of study (including a hypothetical or difficult to implement one) would you propose to disentangle the effects?

Posted by: TGGP at Jul 3, 2007 1:54:17 AM

Offhand, wouldn't it be more likely that the more economically promising pieces of land in Colombia were grabbed up by the rich and powerful, leaving ownership of the less promising pieces of land to small landowners? If true, then it's hardly surprising that the land owned by the rich is richer today than the land then owned by the poor.

Posted by: Steve Sailer at Jul 3, 2007 3:11:50 AM

It's worth pointing out, which Tyler for some reason chose not to, that the authors see the situation in 'weakly institutionalised' polities like Cundinamarca as completely different from that in 'strongly institutionalised' polities like the United States, where they agree that economic inequality leads to 'captured politics' and probably is bad for growth.

More at Crooked Timber: http://crookedtimber.org/2007/07/03/inequality-and-growth/

Posted by: Jim at Jul 3, 2007 3:22:42 AM

Nice paper.
There are strong similarities with "Centuries of Economic Endeavor: Parallel Paths in Japan and Europe and Their Contrast With the Third World" by John Powelson (1994).

Posted by: Bill Arnold at Jul 3, 2007 4:33:28 PM

Nice paper.
There are strong similarities with "Centuries of Economic Endeavor: Parallel Paths in Japan and Europe and Their Contrast With the Third World" by John Powelson (1994).

Posted by: Bill Arnold at Jul 3, 2007 4:33:45 PM

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