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Does free trade bring lower prices?

Dani Rodrik says not really:

Advocates of globalization love to argue that free trade lowers prices, and the argument seems sensible enough. Think of all the cheap goods from China that we can buy at Wal-Mart.  But anyone who understands comparative advantage knows that free trade affects relative prices, not the price level (the latter being the province of macro and monetary factors).  When a country opens up to trade (or liberalizes its trade), it is the relative price of imports that comes down; by necessity, the relative prices of its exports must go up!  Consumers are better off to the extent that their consumption basket is weighted towards importables, but we cannot always rely on this to be the case.

The intuition is this: if my household suddenly trades with the outside world, bread is cheaper but my wife has superior opportunities than before.  It might be harder for me to bid for her time and I will have no one to play tennis with.  If I enjoy tennis enough, I might be worse off.  If you want a real world example, American ethanol use is bidding up the price of Mexican corn; not every campesino is better off.

Greg Mankiw responds, and Rodrik in turn, then Mankiw again.  I would put it as such.  The real gain from trade is the additional output; it should not be surprising if the pecuniary externalities (higher and lower prices) should prove a wash rather than an additional net gain.  In fact a wash of the pecuniary externalities helps ensure that the output effect dominates the welfare calculus. 

More empirically, having your export prices bid up is a wonderful driver of growth more than it is a distributional or efficiency nightmare.  The net externalities of that process are usually positive rather than negative, even without firm- or industry-level increasing returns in the traditional sense.  The exports help build a middle class and in the long run make democracy and rule of law possible.  The dynamic effects are the key to the benefits of trade, and neither the Ricardian nor the Heckscher-Ohlin model is satisfactory.  The best simple (ha!) model has trade bringing more innovation, new goods with high consumer surplus, greater reason to work hard and get ahead, greater domestic inequality, a growing middle class, and new and usually more liberal political coalitions.

Empirically, the troubled cases of trade typically involve exports of oil or diamonds and subsequent corruption.  The relevant problem with trade is not higher prices for home consumption, in fact home consumption of those commodities is usually quite low.  How much oil does Guinea-Bisseau use?  We're left with Mexico and corn prices as a possible example, but note that Mexico would have much lower corn prices with free trade in corn.  And it is U.S. government subsidy, not the market, bidding up the price of corn in the first place.

Maybe we're left with this as the relevant real world example: outsourcing in India drives up wages and makes life harder for people who want lots of servants.

My Inner Misesian is uncomfortable with Rodrik's strong distinction between relative prices and the absolute price level.  Productivity shocks (which are in critical regards analogous to an expansion of trade) can and do lower most of the prices we face, albeit not all of them.

I don't disagree with Rodrik's claims about positive economics, although they don't quite "shade" as I might wish.  I would have liked to have seen the sentence: "The early 20th century trade theorists discussed by Jacob Viner and Gottfried Haberler knew about these problems, but they also realized they did not, when viewed in a realistic context, weaken the case for free trade."

Addendum: Read this survey paper on trade.

Posted by Tyler Cowen on April 29, 2007 at 07:43 AM in Economics | Permalink

Comments

Where is free trade happening? It seems to me that wherever people are using government-issued currency and government-regulated banking they are in a highly regulated market, not a "free" one. So remind me, where does all of this "free trade" happen?

Posted by: John Mark van Rozendaal at Apr 29, 2007 8:47:59 AM

I'm confused about the price level / relative price thing. Opening to trade can be seen as gaining access to a new production technology, can't it? Sure relative prices will move, but don't productivity increases mean real wealth increases? Isn't that the same thing as a lower price level?

Posted by: Luis Enrique at Apr 29, 2007 9:20:46 AM

I think it's pretty clear that for the median American shopper, the trend of big-box stores sell large amounts of imported goods has led to lower prices. And those prices are lower, not only for imported goods, but for domestically-produced groceries as well. Whether that's the result of "free" trade or not is debatable, but it's clearly a result of more trade around the world. For those who like to criticize conventional economic models, take a close look at the standard monopoly model, that predicts lower output and higher prices with more monopoly power. But with Wal-Mart and other big-box stores we see more output at lower prices. Wal-Mart's monopsony power, for example, may explain lower-than-predicted prices but not greater output.

http://econ-www.mit.edu/faculty/download_pdf.php?id=1243

Posted by: Steve Miller at Apr 29, 2007 9:46:03 AM

Spencer will no doubt ride his hobby horse of 'economists ignore the negatives of free trade'. I'll reiterate my point that we add BOTH positives AND negatives and still prefer free trade.

Posted by: Russ Nelson at Apr 29, 2007 9:48:12 AM

Rozendaal: we can compare more free trade to less free trade. Of course thieves will always need to be a part of this analysis, even the ones we elect.

Posted by: Russ Nelson at Apr 29, 2007 9:51:59 AM

In our region, the unemployed and underemployed can shop at Wal-Mart.

Which I guess sorta makes up for losing one's health insurance, pension
and home.

The free trade pie is bigger, the distribution more skewed.

Posted by: save_the-rustbelt at Apr 29, 2007 10:28:43 AM

Well, Rustbelt, outsourcing is essentially freer trade in more highly skilled labor, so the benefits of outsourcing actually flow downward. So that free trade pie is bigger, and the distribution is skewed towards those poor unemployed rustbelters.

Therefore, if you care about equality, you must love outsourcing (although you could still oppose free trade in textiles).

Posted by: Keith at Apr 29, 2007 11:03:20 AM

Why avoid focusing on the global benefits of better allocation? To assume labor is immobile is as inaccurate as to assume capital is immobile. Both urbanization and the flood of immigrants (legal or not) demonstrate this. One might argue readily that restrictions on labor movement are a fundamental price distortion.

Communication technologies have largely lifted labor mobility restrictions for information and knowledge workers.

Posted by: rluser at Apr 29, 2007 11:25:27 AM

Tyler, what about Dani's example? Beef is to Argentina and Uruguay what corn is to Mexico and Central America. There has been some real tension in Argentina, where the government has "negotiated" "self-imposed" internal price controls. Doesen't this count as a relevant world example?

Posted by: economister at Apr 29, 2007 11:26:24 AM

Tyler -- you said that trade brings greater inequality and a growing middle class.

This seems to be inconsistent. Moreover, why would trade have to generate greater inequality?

Would you care to expand on these two seemingly conflicting points?

Posted by: spencer at Apr 29, 2007 11:58:12 AM

Make some poor people wealthier, and inequality goes up while the number of people in the middle class goes up. The real world story is more complicated than that, but at the very least the two mechanisms are compatible.

Posted by: Tyler Cowen at Apr 29, 2007 12:01:42 PM

Actually, on the beef example, Mankiw did indeed nail that one. When your exports increase from trade, producers gain and consumers lose, it's just the producers gain more than consumers lose.

When your imports increase from trade, producers lose and consumers gain, and consumers gain more than producers lose.

We tell the "low prices" story in this country because that's the main way in which we realize the benefits of trade, and the main source of contention.

In other countries, the export-led growth from higher prices are how they enjoy the benefits of trade.

In both countries, both processes create winners and losers. In both countries, the winners win more than the losers lose.

It seems like Rodrik is being a little obtuse to the context in which trade debates occur. Yes, it'd be nice to teach everybody economics. But a lot of people don't want to learn. You choose your emphasis based on the context. There's nothing dishonest about that.

Of course, there's also a great paper to write about the optimal "hiding" of information when dealing with an audience that is either cognitively limited and/or rationally ignorant.

Posted by: Keith at Apr 29, 2007 12:40:15 PM

Consumers only loose if supply is relatively inelastic/if there are diseconomies to further increases in scale. When there are economies to scale consumers and producers gain, as increased demand increases the scale of production raising the quality and lowering the cost of production. Silicon chip manufacture, for instance, would be difficult for a local market.

Posted by: michael vassar at Apr 29, 2007 2:40:08 PM

Aren't falling real prices essentially thesame thing as increased output?

Posted by: josh at Apr 29, 2007 2:41:16 PM

josh stole my thunder. Doesn't increased output - more goods chasing the same number of consumer dollars - result in lower prices?

Posted by: ricpic at Apr 29, 2007 3:01:53 PM

Tyler -- if you make some poor people wealthier there is no inherent reason why it should either increase or decrease inequality.

the two are compatible, but that is not what you said.

Are you arguing that development or growth requires greater inequality?

Posted by: spencer at Apr 29, 2007 3:22:51 PM

U.S. ethanol subsidy surely bids corn prices up, but first the farm subsidies bid them down! Where's the logic?

Posted by: Anton Tykhyy at Apr 29, 2007 3:59:28 PM

(Disclaimer: I already posted a similar response on Rodrik's blog).

I agree that supply and demand would dictate that the domestic prices of a country's exports will go up as it gains access to new markets. At the same time, unemployment will increase in those sectors in which foreign companies can produce goods at a cheaper price.

But go a step further (ah, Bastiat!). Now that there is a temporary higher level of unemployment, exporting industries will be able to hire more workers and possibly at lower wage levels. The result is increased production, and prices for exports returning to their previous levels.

Moreover, if wage levels do decrease, marginal costs drop, again resulting in increased production and lower prices. This, combined with cheaper imports, results in increased buying power for consumers.

Posted by: jdrietz at Apr 29, 2007 6:04:49 PM

Re: ethanol and corn prices ...


... isn't the market for corn supposed to be as close to perfectly competitive as economists see? Why, then, should we not expect long-run corn prices to fall back down? As agricultural productivity has improved, I just don't see that long run corn cost curves have that steep a slope over reasonable ranges of corn production. Shouldn't the ethanol boom really be a real estate boom for certain places? And the LR impact on corn prices minimal?

Posted by: Mike at Apr 30, 2007 10:14:47 AM

I dont think it brings lower prices in the long run but i know that we need to trade so we can have the products that e can not grow because of weather conditions or cost. I think after taxes and other charges we could produce products in America for the same price

Posted by: Rocky Benfield at Apr 30, 2007 2:30:47 PM

Spencer,

He might not, but I will. There is a poverty floor. People without enough money to puchase food and shelter die--usually sooner rather than later. This floor acts as a great equalizer-through-attrition in an impoverished area. The only comparable ceiling is theft.

Look at industrialization. The "robber barons" of the day held wealth unimaginable by the true robber barons, both in absolute and relative terms. Average wealth grew tremendously, and the people who were most directly responsible were appropriately compensated.

Suppose I live in a commune with nine other people. Suppose I figure out how to add twenty dollars of wealth to the commune. Being a good communist, I give half to the commune. I end up with eleven dollars, everyone else one. All are better off. The average is up. Inequality is way up.

Deal.

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