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Alan Reynolds on *Income and Wealth*

Alan Reynolds revises some standard views about income distribution in his new book, discussed in today's Wall Street Journal, Op-Ed page.  The opening question: is it true that America's top one percent takes in sixteen percent of national income?  Maybe not.  I don't usually offer such long excerpts, but if Reynolds's skepticism is warranted, it is very, very important...

...The architects of these estimates, Thomas Piketty of École Normale Supérieure in Paris and Emmanuel Saez of the University of California at Berkeley, did not refer to shares of total income but to shares of income reported on individual income tax returns-a very different thing. They estimate that the top 1% (1.3 million) of taxpayers accounted for 16.1% of reported income in 2004. But they explicitly exclude Social Security and other transfer payments, which make up a large and growing share of total income: 14.7% of personal income in 2004, up from 9.3% in 1980. Besides, not everyone files a tax return, not all income is taxable (e.g., municipal bonds), and not every taxpayer tells the complete truth about his or her income.

For such reasons, personal income in 2004 was $3.3 trillion, or 34.4%, larger than the amount included in the denominator of the Piketty-Saez ratio of top incomes to total incomes. Because that gap has widened from 30.5% in 1988, the increasingly gigantic understatement of total income contributes to an illusory increase in the top 1%'s exaggerated share.

The same problems affect Piketty-Saez estimates of share of the top 5%, which contradict those from the Census Bureau (which also exclude transfer payments). Piketty and Saez figure the top 5%'s share rose to 31% in 2004 from 27% in 1993. Census Bureau estimates, by contrast, show the top 5%'s share of family income fluctuating insignificantly from 20% to 21% since 1993. The top 5%'s share has been virtually flat since 1988...

Unlike the Census Bureau, Messrs. Piketty and Saez measure income per tax unit rather than per family or household. They maintain that income per tax unit is 28% smaller than income per household, on average. But because there are many more two-earner couples sharing a joint tax return among high-income households, estimating income per tax return exaggerates inequality per worker.

...the amount of income Messrs. Piketty and Saez attribute to the top 1% accounted for 10.6% of personal income in 2004. That 10.6% figure looks much higher than it was in 1980. Yet most of that increase was, as they explained, "concentrated in two years, 1987 and 1988, just after the Tax Reform Act of 1986." As Mr. Saez added, "It seems clear that the sharp, and unprecedented, increase in incomes from 1986 to 1988 is related to the large decrease in marginal tax rates that happened exactly during those years."

That 1986-88 surge of reported high income was no surprise to economists who study taxes. All leading studies of "taxable income elasticity," including two by Mr. Saez, agree that the amount of income reported by high-income taxpayers is extremely sensitive to the marginal tax rate. When the top tax rate goes way down, the amount reported on tax returns goes way up. Those capable of earning high incomes had more incentive to do so when the top U.S. tax rate dropped to 28% in 1988 from 50% in 1986. They also had less incentive to maximize tax deductions and perks, and more incentive to arrange to be paid in forms taxed as salary rather than as capital gains or corporate profits.

The top line in the graph shows how much of the top 1%'s income came from business profits. In 1981, only 7.8% of the income attributed to the top 1% came from business, because, as Mr. Saez explained, "the standard C-corporation form was more advantageous for high-income individual owners because the top individual tax rate was much higher than the corporate tax rate and taxes on capital gains were relatively low." More businesses began to file under the individual tax when individual tax rates came down in 1983. This trend became a stampede in 1987-1988 when the business share of top percentile income suddenly increased by 10 percentage points. The business share increased again in recent years, accounting for 28.4% of the top 1%'s income in 2004.

As was well-documented years ago by economists Roger Gordon and Joel Slemrod, a great deal of the apparent increase in reported high incomes has been due to "tax shifting." That is, lower individual tax rates induced thousands of businesses to shift from filing under the corporate tax system to filing under the individual tax system, often as limited liability companies or Subchapter S corporations.

IRS economist Kelly Luttrell explained that, "The long-term growth of S-corporation returns was encouraged by four legislative acts: the Tax Reform Act of 1986, the Revenue Reconciliation Act of 1990, the Revenue Reconciliation Act of 1993, and the Small Business Protection Act of 1996. Filings of S-corporation returns have increased at an annual rate of nearly 9.0% since the enactment of the Tax Reform Act of 1986."

Switching income from corporate tax returns to individual returns did not make the rich any richer. Yet it caused a growing share of business owners' income to be newly recorded as "individual income" in the Piketty-Saez and Congressional Budget Office studies that rely on a sample individual income tax returns. Aside from business income, the top 1%'s share of personal income from 2002 to 2004 was just 7.2%-the same as it was in 1988.

In short, income shifting has exaggerated the growth of top incomes, while excluding a third of personal income (including transfer payments) has exaggerated the top groups' income share. [emphasis added]

There are other serious problems with comparing income reported on tax returns before and after the 1986 Tax Reform. When the tax rate on top salaries came down after 1988, for example, corporate executives switched from accepting stock or incentive stock options taxed as capital gains (which are excluded from the basic Piketty-Saez estimates) to nonqualified stock options reported as W-2 salary income (which are included in the Piketty-Saez estimates). This largely explains why the top 1%'s share rises with the stock boom of 1997-2000 then falls with the stock market in 2001-2003.

In recent years, an increasingly huge share of the investment income of middle-income savers is accruing inside 401(k), IRA and 529 college-savings plans and is therefore invisible in tax return data. In the 1970s, by contrast, such investment income was usually taxable, so it appears in the Piketty-Saez estimates for those years. Comparing tax returns between the 1970s and recent years greatly understates the actual gain in middle incomes, and thereby contributes to the exaggeration of top income shares.

In a forthcoming Cato Institute paper I survey a wide range of official and academic statistics, finding no clear trend toward increased inequality after 1988 in the distribution of disposable income, consumption, wages or wealth. The incessantly repeated claim that income inequality has widened dramatically over the past 20 years is founded entirely on these seriously flawed and greatly misunderstood estimates of the top 1%'s alleged share of something-or-other.

Opinions?  I am embarrassed to admit I have yet to read Pikaetty and Saez.  If you would like an alternative perspective from that offered by Reynolds, here is Paul Krugman.

Addendum: Here is Greg Mankiw on same, with related links.

Posted by Tyler Cowen on December 14, 2006 at 07:02 AM in Data Source, Economics | Permalink

Comments

In addition, inflation hasn't affected the income distribution evenly. While this doen't mean there isn't a problem with increasing inequallity, it reduces the impact. In the five years leading up to 2005, the BLS shows that while incomes had remained flat for the bottom half of earners, expenditures had gone down. For most goods, prices didn't increase or alternatives were easily substituted. Until the more recent gas price spike, the impact on living hasn't been too severe. However, flat earnings does mean that mobility decreased. It would mean that more savings are needed for investments to move into the higher income groups.

Posted by: aaron at Dec 14, 2006 8:43:12 AM

Also, its not the smae people in the top 1% nor the bottom 5%. You would need a longitudinal study to show that the rich are getting richer and the poor are getting poorer. We should also remember that even if that was happening, only the latter would be a problem.

Posted by: josh at Dec 14, 2006 8:58:20 AM

The main claim seems to be that the TRA86 threw everything off. However, even if you throw out '85-'87, there was a huge increase in inequality both before and after that period. It's true that 1986 and 1987 were odd years, but the increase in inequality has been consistent over time.

Posted by: Ian D-B at Dec 14, 2006 9:11:31 AM

The data is further distorted by the new tax game in town. The strategy which has become well known and widespread among those that work off the books is to report just enough income $8-12 thousand dollars to qualify for and maximize the earned income credit and then do everything else off of the books. Clearly a unintended windfall. I am sure that you will see an increase in the data for the earned income credit. A signifiacant increase in tax returns filed should show up as well. My maid drives a new Explorer. She makes the payments with the earned income credit. She insits on cash. I did have enough concience to ask if she paid taxes. She showed me her tax return and sure enough $9,600 of income. Her customers on my street alone pay her more than $20,000 a year.

Posted by: Glenn Schafer at Dec 14, 2006 9:13:49 AM

I think it's alsoimportant to recognize that there are other data sets that show this same sort of inequality. One is Saez and Kopczuk which uses data on estate tax returns to get a good estimate of the wealth distribution in the top 2%. Another is the CPS which shows us how inequality has been increasing at levels below the top 1%. Tax data certainly has some problems, but the fact that it's not perfect, such as in terms of measuring household income rather than individual income, does not mean that inequality hasn't increased.

Posted by: Ian D-B at Dec 14, 2006 9:19:48 AM

I've used research from Reynolds before in looking at other matters to do with income distribution (for example, people using the Federal poverty line as a measure of what people consume, when it is pre tax, pre benefit, so misses out EITC for example) and found him sound.

Posted by: Tim Worstall at Dec 14, 2006 9:27:31 AM

It is difficult to tell whether his points are legitimate or whether this is just an example of what Leland Yeager calls "Alan Reynolds style argumentation" (i.e. spitting out a bunch of facts that aren't related to your argument and then restating your argument).

Posted by: steve at Dec 14, 2006 9:49:31 AM

I don't know Alan Reynold's, but a more fitting name for that style would be Crooked Timber.

Posted by: aaron at Dec 14, 2006 10:11:56 AM

Most of what's excerpted seems sound, however Reynolds does overstate his case. One example is his point of examining household income vs per capita. Even if household income is stable, additional expenses are incurred inorder to be able to manage a dual income lifestyle. I agree that inequallity is probably exaggerated, but that might not be true in the future. I think that in recent years upward mobility at the lower end likely decreased.

Posted by: aaron at Dec 14, 2006 10:32:09 AM

I have not read Alan's book, but the main problem with inequality/income analysis is that it does not hold various economic and demographic characteristics constant. The Tax Foundation also has a book that details these shifts in the underlying data and how it distorts the perception of America's "Middle Class," "Rich versus Poor," etc.
http://www.taxfoundation.org/publications/show/1152.html

Posted by: Scott at Dec 14, 2006 10:37:27 AM

Anytime economists staft talking about the tax system I get nervous.

Economics is a science? Ya boy.

And those little people have too much already, we need to send more to
Wall Street.

Posted by: save_the_rustbelt at Dec 14, 2006 11:31:56 AM

Reynolds is correct. Prior to 1986 there was a thriving tax shelter industry that existed to limit what income high earners reported for tax purposes.

That industry collapsed after the TRA of 1986. The same people who supported it, found it cheaper to simply pay a tax of 28% on higher income, than to pay Financial Planners, CPAs, attorneys to limit the reported income.

Posted by: Patrick R. Sullivan at Dec 14, 2006 11:32:59 AM

Perceived inequality versus measured inequality being conflated in a demagogic fashion

The trouble with the US inequality debate is that commentators like Krugman conflate abstract statistical economic measures of inequality with people's subjective feelings about inequality. I see no reason why the abstract and the personal should be at-all tightly correlated - indeed, they quite obviously are not correlated since it is well established that the greatest psychological resentment is directed towards similarly-situated people (eg. the guy in the next cubicle who does not much more but gets paid twice as much).

If it is the supposed socially-corrosive subjective effects of inequality that worries liberal commentators, then logically in response policies should focus on these subjectivities. In other words, (logically) the solution to perceived inequality is to make people 'feel' more equal, presumably by some kind of propaganda.

However, commentators such as Krugman are doing the opposite - they are trying to stir-up popular resentment about inequality (especially class and race resentments), trying to make people feel subjectively worse by highlighting statistics which portray inequality as bad and getting worse.

The implicit argument is that if you don't already feel bad about this - then you should.

I don't find this kind of thing admirable - indeed it strikes me as pretty close to demagogery.

Posted by: Bruce G Charlton at Dec 14, 2006 12:32:51 PM

This is really obnoxious. Someone deserves to be accused of demagoguery, but my first choice would be they guy who writes the op-ed (or perhaps the editors who publish it?) distorting income inequality as cover-fire the day after Goldman announces its bonuses.

http://www.taxpolicycenter.org/TaxModel/tmdb/Content/PDF/T05-0067.pdf

18% of income to the top 1%. After transfers, after accounting for business income. These numbers aren't a figment of liberal economists' imagination, Tyler.

Posted by: Matt at Dec 14, 2006 12:47:08 PM

And here's what happens when you adjust for family size -

http://www.taxpolicycenter.org/taxmodel/tmdb/Content/PDF/T06-0306.pdf

18% goes to 20.6% for the top 1%. Not exactly what was implied by the article you excerpted.

Posted by: Matt at Dec 14, 2006 12:53:41 PM

when you look at tax returns see that there are two types of income -- total income and taxable income. Many of the comments seem to assume that laws changing what is taxable income would also change total income.

The 1986 law changes caused big changes in taxable income. But why did it have to cause changes in total income? Prior to 1986 the tax payer still had to report the income that was sheltered even if it was not taxed.
So shifting income from a tax shelter to a unsheltered basis does not necessarily cause changes in reported total income.

The s-corp argument seems interesting but again, didn't the owner of the s-corp report it as well before the law change?

Posted by: spencer at Dec 14, 2006 12:58:47 PM

"But they explicitly exclude Social Security and other transfer payments, which make up a large and growing share of total income: 14.7% of personal income in 2004, up from 9.3% in 1980. Besides, not everyone files a tax return, not all income is taxable (e.g., municipal bonds), and not every taxpayer tells the complete truth about his or her income.

For such reasons, personal income in 2004 was $3.3 trillion, or 34.4%, larger than the amount included in the denominator of the Piketty-Saez ratio of top incomes to total incomes."

The number used for total incomes is 34% larger, and of which we know that 14%/34% is due to transfer payments. So he explains about 40% of the difference between the two numbers. What makes up the other 60%? There aren't many options. Why doesn't he tell us? You would think he might want to break out what those are. That he doesn't makes this CFA immediately suspicious - he doesn't seem to have a problem with talking about numbers through the rest of the article. Its his very first statistics, his most likely strongest argument, and he doesn't explain about 1/2 of the effect?


In any case, his major argument seems to be that inequality isn't increasing, but rather that it has been bad all along.


Posted by: mickslam at Dec 14, 2006 1:43:05 PM

"The s-corp argument seems interesting but again, didn't the owner of the s-corp report it as well before the law change?"

Only if it was already an S-Corp. Many weren't.

Posted by: Sebastian Holsclaw at Dec 14, 2006 1:47:23 PM

My textbook, Income and Wealth, is carefully documented and everything I state as a fact is linked to an URL so you can check for yourself. This is a topic about which people form very stong opinions on the basis of very weak facts. After 35 years of debating this issue, I grew tired of all the deception. Reality is not a matter of opinion. The income tax data I refer to in the Journal is not suitable for the purpose to which it is put, to put it as kindly as I possibly can.

Posted by: Alan Reynolds at Dec 14, 2006 2:08:01 PM

I have never understood why people discribe graphs instead of showing them. If you want to see the change in the income distribution data from different sources look at the graphs at
http://www.visualizingeconomics.com/category/graph/

I would also point out that the share of GDP in social security payments was increasing until the mid 70's but has been nearly constant since then. Also the cost of health care has been rising the average benefits cost has not, because of decreasing coverage and cut backs in other benifits. EITC payments now amounts to about 44 billion a year, which is significant for the low income group but has little effect on overall averages.
The income for the bottom 20% does not reflect standard of living. Expenditures for this group is about double their income because it includes people living off saving and family and non cash welfare, that is the retired, students not living at home, the sick and the unemployed.

Posted by: joan at Dec 14, 2006 4:06:58 PM

"In any case, his major argument seems to be that inequality isn't increasing, but rather that it has been bad all along."

Americans are able to tolerate quite a bit of static inequality. That is why the argument is always formed about increasing inequality stifling the American dream by doing things like reducing social movement. As a normative question I'm not troubled at all by extreme wealth on one tail as long as there is what see as a non-awful living at the other tail and a well functioning economy in the middle.

Posted by: Sebastian Holsclaw at Dec 14, 2006 4:32:10 PM

If this claim is correct, then what happens to the thesis that many have advanced (including tyler and alex), that inequality is the result of increasing returns to education, globalisation etc. Presumably, the economy hasn't changed in a way that rewards education and the knowledge economy.

Posted by: snarky at Dec 14, 2006 6:06:08 PM

Alan,

It's been a while since we last spoke. You're right that the IRS data is far from ideal. However, it's the best we've got. There is simply no other data set that gives us as much data on the very top end of the income distribution. the fact that there are some imperfections, as with any other data set, doesn't make it useless.

Posted by: Ian D-B at Dec 14, 2006 7:04:02 PM

Ian D-B,

Useless isn't the point. It is the use that it has been put to that is being questioned. The imperfections have to be accounted for and explained, not ignored. Because it isn't useless does not mean that it can be put to any use one chooses with any validity.

Posted by: Lance at Dec 14, 2006 8:14:01 PM

Well, that's why Piketty and Saez used the data for a number of different calculations. While top income shares were important, top wage shares also have risen a lot too. I think alan's criticisms of the tax data's validity for total income are useful. However, I'm much less convinced by his arguments about how well the IRS measures wages. The arguments about family size and hours can be shown in other data sets to cause pretty small problems. ECI data also confirms many of the results on the wage distribution and can extend them to total compensation including benefits like health insurance.

So, Lance, I think you're right that we can't use the tax data for just anything we want, but Alan's comment above made it seem as if the data have almost no use at all. I respectfully disagree.

Posted by: Ian D-B at Dec 14, 2006 8:45:04 PM

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