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Is American FDI more productive and am I dizzy?

Dan Drezner writes:

Given the fact that foreigners currently have a net claim on $2.5 trillion in U.S. assets, one would expect the U.S. to be paying out a lot more in interest, dividends, and profits to foreigners than Americans would receive from their investments.

The weird thing is that, so far, this hasn't been true. Last year the U.S. earned $36 billion more on their foreign investments than foreigners earned in the United States. The question is, why?

It turns out Americans both (seem to) make riskier investments and earn a higher return on investment.  One extreme view (not Dan's) suggests the following:

Once assets are valued accordingly, the US appears to be a net creditor, not a net debtor and its net foreign asset position appears to have been fairly stable over the last 20 years.

For months this debate has been making my head spin. 

1. I think of FDI as often taking ten or more years to pay off.  Yes, we should account for the "dark matter" of superior investment performance but a country with older FDI will appear to have a stronger net asset position than is the case.  If we think of the U.S. as the more established foreign investor, the apparent superiority of our investments may be an accounting convention and simply a matter of their vintage.

2. If Americans are earning higher risk-adjusted rates of return by investing abroad, why don't foreigners buy U.S. multinationals until this difference goes away?

3. I also get dizzy pondering the difference between value productivity and real productivity.  We, and the world, should be happy if we can produce more widgets.  But should we be equally happy if we earn more money simply by buying widget inputs at lower prices?  Isn't this just a transfer from abroad?  Citing this as a true global benefit seems to invoke precisely the kind of mercantilist reasoning that we reject in other contexts.  Even more strongly, should we be so happy that the Japanese sometimes buy U.S. assets at such inflated prices? 

Yes, you might welcome wealth transfers, especially if you feel your economy or currency is about to collapse.  But what if these transfers are a one-time stock inherited from the past?  That means we have mismeasured the height of our perch but we would (if you buy the whole dollar pessimism argument) still collapse.  Do we have good reason to believe that an ongoing flow of these wealth transfers will continue in the future?

My bottom line, for now: The U.S. enjoys many intangible competitive advantages, ranging from demographics, a more entrepreneurial climate, and better TV shows.  These all affect the value of the dollar, and as you probably know, I have never bought into the dollar pessimism argument.  Even if we should consider superior FDI performance as another factor, it is unlikely to stand at the top of the list.

Continuing...as the now-to-be-tenured Dr. Drezner would say...Comments are open...Brad Setser commented on Dan's blog, and I have reproduced his remarks  beneath the fold...Addendum: Brad Setser has much more at his blog.

Dan -- As erg noted, I argue that the anecdotal evidence points to corporate tax arbitrage as a key explanation. But if you come across the definative b-school explanation, do let me know. So ask Bill Gates, or the big pharma CEOs with big profits in Ireland for the answer, not old George Soros.

I'll set aside my argument that investing in US dollar denominated assets is actually very risky for a foreign investors looking to maintain their real wealth in local currencies terms. The big current account deficit and all. Not everyone agrees with it.

But I don't think the US just is good at borrowing at low cost to buy high yielding assets argument works that well. For a couple of reasons. First, US returns abroad really aren't that good. The shocking thing is that reported foreign returns on their FDI are really bad -- less than they would have gotten holding long-term Treasuries generally. It isn't US skill, at least not skill at anything other than taking foreign direct investors for a ride that shows up in the data (now if FDI in the US doesn't want to show profits in the US for tax reasons, the story changes ... ). Second, most US FDI is just not in risky markets, nor are most US debt securities claims on risky places. Most US FDI is in the UK. lots more is in Switzerland. Throw in Japan, Canada and the Eurozone and you have a decent mental image of US assets abroad. Read the CBO report on this topic. Or look at the data the IMF has assembled on the sources of FDI in China (hint -- it ain't mostly coming from the US). US investors also own foreign bonds -- but they are mostly the securities issued in well developed markets that are almost as liquid as our own. UK, Japan, Canada, eurozone and the like.

We have lent tons of money to the Caymans too; I bet the Caymans also invests a lot in the US .... hhmmm? Maybe some b-school prof can help us out there. Or tax attorney.

Posted by Tyler Cowen on January 15, 2006 at 07:32 AM in Economics | Permalink

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Tyler Cowen:Dan Drezner writes: Given the fact that foreigners currently have a net claim on $2.5 trillion in U.S. assets, one would expect the U.S. to be paying out a lot more in interest, dividends, and profits to foreigners than... [Read More]

Tracked on Jan 15, 2006 11:48:23 PM

Comments

Much of foreigners' investment in the US is by foreign central banks
(like the Bank of China) in US treasury debt, which has a relatively
lower yield than private sector investments.
Americans don't invest in foreign governments' debt, prefering higher
yielding investments in both private equity and publicly held
firms.

Posted by: Bill Stepp at Jan 15, 2006 11:00:19 AM

One problem with the statistics on stocks of FDI is that, to the best of my knowledge, the data is not adjusted for inflation. The US started investing abroad in the 1950s and 1960s, whereas the rest of the world started investing in the US in the 1970s and later. That means the vintage of the US stock is older than the vintage of the foreign stock. Dividend and interest flows, however, are measured in current dollars, not cumulated historic dollars. That alone would give an upward bias to the measured rate of return on the direct assets we own abroad, vs. the direct assests of ours that foreigners own because of the understatement of the denominator for the US.

A second issue has to do with composition of flows. Back in the late 1970s, an economist by the name of Giorgio Ragazzi (iirc), wrote a nice but essentially ignored paper in the IMF Staff Papers journal. He argued that US investors would invest abroad via FDI, while foreign investors would invest in the US via portfolio investment. The reason was that US financial markets were transparent, liquid, deep, and had low transactions costs. Therefore, the foreigners could accomplish their desired international diversification simply and cheaply by holding the shares themselves. By contrast, foreign financial markets were less transparent, etc., so US investors would choose to achieve their international diversification through shares in US firms that would own real assets abroad. Thus the source of the US FDI "advantage" is not that US firms are better at FDI, but rather that foreign financial markets are worse than US ones.

Posted by: Acad Ronin at Jan 15, 2006 2:24:45 PM

This has been discussed in "Where Dat Dark Matter?" over
on Maxspeak at length.

One point to keep in mind is that much of the investment
here is by central banks who are not profit maximizers.
Their investment decisions are based on internal
macro policy goals, such as keeping up employment in
Japan and China.

Posted by: Barkley Rosser at Jan 15, 2006 2:41:37 PM

I wonder how much FDI is "dumb money" like corrupt Chinese officials buying expensive property in LA for cash? According to many Chinese I know, this is very common, with whole subdivisions focused on this sort of thing. They don't particularly care about ROI - they just want a place to park money if/when they choose to escape.

Posted by: Foobarista at Jan 15, 2006 3:11:37 PM

A couple of points.

Dumb Chinese real estate might work, but I wonder how big it is.
Those kinds of flows are also even bigger into europe. Think African, middle eastern
and Russian oligarchs ...

I don't think central bank buying is the whole story. Here is why. You can
match US FDI abroad against foreign FDI here, US portfolio investment abroad v.
foreign porfolio investment here, and so on. They don't match perfectly, but they
sort of match. Central bank and other buying can explain why the US doesn't pay more
on its (net) debt position. But it cannot explain why the US makes so much on its(
(net) equity position. that position is generally speaking, offset not by debt claims, but
foreign equity claims on the US (it is maybe 1/4 debt, 3/4 equity -- and it asl
all equity til the valuation changes associated with the dollar's post 02 fall)(

the difference here comes from low returns on foreign direct investment in the US,
and average returns on us direct investment abroad.

the "its old money" argment sort of works, but it implies that say ford/ GM
make a lot in europe, while BMW/ Toyota make less in the US. And new US FDI --
microsoft and pfizer in Ireland -- shouldn't be very profitable. judging from the data,
tho, some of the new FDI is very profitable. And, given how little new FDI is
coming to the US these days, pretty soon the existing stock will be sort of old.

the big equity flows stopped in 01.

cheers

Posted by: brad at Jan 15, 2006 3:46:52 PM

The bond market affords anonymity from intrusive overtaxing greedy-hand third-world governments. That's why a lot of foreigners prefer bonds over stocks.

Posted by: A.M. Mora y Leon at Jan 15, 2006 7:12:59 PM

brad makes a reasonable point. Although the
recent flows have been much more heavily weighted
towards central banks, the aggregate fdi balances are
such that one can only surmise that somehow US fdi abroad
is earning higher returns than fdi here. Difficult to
say what is going on with that, although it may be that
US investors are pickier and more risk averse, only going
for the surest and safest bets on high returns.

This of course turns a widespread argument on its head.
We hear from the "dark matter" advocates that the US is
earning all these higher returns because it is so much
more willing to bear risk, to make all these high risk/
high return investments while all those wimpy foreigners
are just buying up our low-yielding Treasury bills and
poorly performing stock market. However, given the risk
of a dollar crash, these assets all look rather dicey.

Posted by: Barkley Rosser at Jan 16, 2006 4:16:32 PM

When people talk about "Americans are earning higher risk-adjusted rates of return" or Chinese "dumb money" I wonder just how dumb it is.

When you risk adjust the returns do you take into account different people having different risks? A chinese government official or even a legit business investor has a whole range of risks that don't apply to a US investor. Ta is less worried about the USD dropping 20% than about an anticorruption purge or an outbreak of civil violence.

Remember, these chinese officials were at school during the cultural revolution. They saw things go very bad, very quickly, right up close.

My father-in-law was jailed and beaten for being educated. My brothers-in-law were sent to camps. These people do risk-adjustment in a way that doesn't just rely on a standard deviation. Mathematically (and they DO understand the maths) the distribution curve has a very fat tail in many parts of the world.

It's very possible for the American investor and the 3rd/2nd world investor to BOTH be getting above market risk adjusted returns, because each one is doing the risk adjustment using different risks.

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